Questions - Cranes, Hoists and General Purpose Winches

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  3. Questions – Cranes, Hoists and General Purpose Winches

The original questions can be found here.

1. Technical equipment subject to technical inspection may be operated on the basis of:
  1. an oral or written permit issued by an authorized maintenance technician
  2. a valid decision authorizing operation issued by the competent technical inspection authority
  3. the CE marking placed on the device
  4. a declaration of conformity issued by the manufacturer
2. Which of the following activities does NOT belong to the scope of responsibilities of a handling equipment (UTB) operator
  1. performing minor repairs to the equipment within the scope of one’s education and skills
  2. complying with the operation manual regarding the handling of the equipment
  3. becoming familiar with the work plan and the weight of the loads to be moved
  4. all of the above answers are correct
3. Maintenance inspection intervals for technical equipment:
  1. are included in the operation manual of the device
  2. are determined by the maintenance technician
  3. are specified in the report by the inspector performing the examination
  4. all of the above answers are correct
4. Technical inspection is defined as:
  1. specific statutory activities aimed at ensuring the safe operation of technical equipment and fuel vapor recovery units, as well as activities aimed at ensuring public safety in these areas
  2. institutions monitoring the technical condition of equipment
  3. the Office of Technical Inspection (UDT)
  4. UDT, WDT, TDT
5. Technical inspection of technical equipment is performed by:
  1. the Office of Technical Inspection and specialized technical inspection units
  2. the Office of Technical Inspection and organizations authorized by the UDT
  3. the Office of Technical Inspection and foreign technical inspection units
  4. all of the above answers are correct
6. A change in technical parameters or a change in the design of technical equipment is treated as
  1. modernization of technical equipment
  2. repair of technical equipment
  3. removal of defects and other irregularities of technical equipment
  4. manufacture of a new device
7. An agreed repair or modernization of technical equipment may be performed by:
  1. a repairer or modernizer who holds an authorization issued by the competent technical inspection authority
  2. the equipment operator who has appropriate experience in repairs or modernization
  3. a maintenance technician who has appropriate experience in repairs or modernization
  4. a competent operator, within a limited scope
8. The Act on Technical Inspection defines the following forms of technical inspection:
  1. total, partial, limited
  2. full, limited, simplified
  3. full, cyclical, sporadic
  4. UDT, WDT, TDT
9. A decision authorizing the operation of technical equipment is issued by:
  1. a maintenance technician after performing an inspection with a positive result
  2. the competent technical inspection authority or the equipment operator acting under the authorization of the competent technical inspection authority
  3. the competent technical inspection authority or a public administration body acting under the authorization of the competent technical inspection authority
  4. the competent technical inspection authority
10. A technical equipment operator may commence work when:
  1. the equipment has a valid decision authorizing operation, if required by relevant regulations
  2. they hold a qualification certificate of the appropriate category
  3. the equipment has a current positive result of a maintenance inspection
  4. all the above conditions must be met simultaneously
11. A technical equipment operator may commence work when:
  1. the equipment has a valid decision authorizing operation, if required by relevant regulations
  2. they hold a qualification certificate of the appropriate category
  3. the equipment has a current positive result of a maintenance inspection
  4. all the above conditions must be met simultaneously
12. In the event of non-compliance with technical inspection regulations by the operator/user, the operator/user:
  1. receives a written warning
  2. receives post-inspection recommendations
  3. is subject to a fine or restriction of liberty
  4. answers a and b are correct
13. In the event of a threat to human life or health, property, or the environment, the inspector:
  1. issues a decision to suspend the operation of the technical device
  2. issues a fine
  3. gives a written warning to the operator
  4. all of the above answers are correct
14. In the event of dangerous damage to a technical device or a fatal accident, the operator:
  1. immediately notifies the UDT (Office of Technical Inspection) of the incident
  2. notifies the manufacturer of the device about the causes of the incident
  3. immediately repairs the device and returns it to further operation
  4. submits the device for repair
15. A qualification certificate for operating equipment may be revoked by:
  1. the competent technical inspection authority
  2. the equipment operator/employer
  3. the health and safety (BHP) inspector
  4. the National Labour Inspectorate (PIP)
16. Technical devices NOT covered by technical inspection are:
  1. cranes with a lifting capacity up to 3.2 t
  2. hoists, winches, and overhead cranes
  3. lift trucks and mobile platforms
  4. transport slings
17. Technical devices covered by technical inspection include:
  1. cabin and chair conveyors
  2. storage stacker cranes and devices for persons with disabilities
  3. goods lifts and ship lifts
  4. all of the above answers are correct
18. Dangerous damage to a technical device is:
  1. any fault of the handling equipment
  2. unforeseen damage as a result of which the device is suitable for partial operation
  3. unforeseen damage as a result of which the device is suitable for operation only at reduced parameters
  4. unforeseen damage as a result of which the device is unfit for operation or its further operation poses a threat
19. A fatal accident (unfortunate accident) is:
  1. a sudden event that caused physical injury or death
  2. a sudden event that caused a work interruption
  3. a sudden event that results in the technical device being taken out of service
  4. any fault of the handling equipment caused by a random event
20. Lifting and moving persons by technical equipment intended exclusively for the transport of loads requires:
  1. agreement with the competent technical inspection authority
  2. agreement with the supervisor
  3. agreement with the health and safety (BHP) service
  4. is possible provided that extreme caution is exercised and it is under the supervision of an inspector
21. The party responsible for ensuring proper operation and maintenance of a technical device is:
  1. the equipment operator (owner/user)
  2. the competent technical inspection authority
  3. the National Labour Inspectorate (PIP)
  4. the UDT inspector
22. Maintenance inspections required by law are performed by:
  1. a person holding a qualification certificate for maintenance
  2. an employee of the manufacturer’s authorized service (provided they hold qualification certificates for maintenance)
  3. the plant’s internal maintenance services
  4. answers a and b are correct
23. The maintenance log of a technical device is kept by:
  1. the UDT inspector in the device’s revision book
  2. an authorized operator
  3. a designated employee of the owner/user
  4. the maintenance technician of the technical device
24. Acceptance tests are carried out for technical devices:
  1. within deadlines consistent with the provisions of the regulation on technical conditions of technical inspection
  2. before the issuance of the first decision authorizing operation
  3. after a repair of the technical device
  4. after each change of the owner/user
25. Periodic inspections are carried out for technical devices covered by technical inspection in the following form:
  1. limited
  2. full
  3. simplified
  4. all answers are correct
26. The absence of a maintenance technician during the inspection of a technical device requires, among others:
  1. prior agreement of this fact with the competent technical inspection authority
  2. submission of a written justification for the maintenance technician’s absence
  3. submission of a medical certificate confirming the maintenance technician’s inability to work
  4. all answers are correct
27. A candidate for a technical equipment operator must:
  1. be at least 18 years old
  2. have at least a vocational education
  3. have at least 1 year of work experience
  4. all of the above answers are correct
28. A technical equipment operator is obliged to stop work when:
  1. their physical or mental state on the working day is inadequate
  2. they determine that further work with the device poses a threat
  3. the device is malfunctioning
  4. all of the above answers are correct
29. Maintenance inspection intervals for a device may be specified in:
  1. the operation manual of the device
  2. the Act on Technical Inspection
  3. the regulation specifying the technical conditions of technical inspection
  4. answers a and c are correct
30. The intervals for periodic and ad-hoc control inspections of handling equipment (UTB) are specified in:
  1. the Act on Technical Inspection
  2. the regulation specifying the technical conditions of technical inspection
  3. the design documentation of the device
  4. the maintenance log
31. The responsibility of a technical equipment operator includes:
  1. complying with the operation manual regarding the handling of the device
  2. complying with the operation manual regarding the maintenance of the device
  3. performing repairs on the device
  4. all of the above answers are correct
32. Technical equipment may be operated on the basis of:
  1. a current sticker from the competent technical inspection authority specifying the date of the next inspection
  2. a current entry by the maintenance technician in the maintenance log
  3. a valid decision authorizing operation issued by the competent technical inspection authority
  4. a positive report from a periodic or acceptance inspection
33. After performing activities related to a technical device, the inspector prepares:
  1. the operation manual for the device
  2. a decision and a report on the activities performed
  3. a CE declaration of conformity
  4. all of the above answers are correct
34. Repair and modernization of a technical device is performed by:
  1. the operator within the scope of their skills
  2. the maintenance technician
  3. an authorized plant/entity
  4. the operator/user
35. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of a technical device is:
  1. the equipment operator
  2. the manufacturer of the device
  3. the plant’s health and safety (BHP) inspector
  4. the UDT inspector
36. Information regarding the principles of safe operation of the device is contained in:
  1. the operation manual of the device
  2. the Act on Technical Inspection
  3. the maintenance log
  4. the report from the inspection performed by the UDT inspector
37. As part of the activities before starting work, the operator:
  1. checks the technical condition of the device through visual inspection
  2. performs static and dynamic tests
  3. performs functional movement tests of the device
  4. answers a and c are correct
38. Qualification certificates for operating technical equipment subject to technical inspection are issued by:
  1. the training company after a positive result of an examination
  2. the health and safety (BHP) inspector based on a certificate of course completion
  3. the employer based on a passed exam
  4. the competent technical inspection authority
39. Overloading the handling equipment (UTB) during work:
  1. is prohibited
  2. is permissible
  3. is permissible, but only up to 125% of the nominal capacity
  4. is permissible, but only up to 110% of the nominal capacity
40. Ad-hoc operational inspections are carried out, among others:
  1. after each fault rectification by a maintenance technician
  2. after replacement of the load-bearing ropes/chains
  3. once a year
  4. after an accident involving the device
41. The operator’s duties are specified in:
  1. the operation manual of the device
  2. the maintenance log
  3. the Act on Technical Inspection
  4. all of the above answers are correct
42. Periodic inspections of a technical device are performed by:
  1. a maintenance technician holding an appropriate qualification certificate
  2. an inspector of the competent technical inspection authority
  3. a manufacturer’s service employee
  4. the operator
43. A technical inspection unit is:
  1. the Office of Technical Inspection (UDT)
  2. the Military Technical Inspection (WDT)
  3. the Transport Technical Inspection (TDT)
  4. all of the above answers are correct
44. Qualification certificates authorizing the operation of technical devices are valid in the territory of:
  1. the Republic of Poland
  2. the European Union
  3. they do not have a defined area of validity
  4. the Schengen area countries
45. The obligation to use personal protective equipment by technical equipment operators results from:
  1. the manufacturer’s operation manual
  2. health and safety (BHP) regulations
  3. internal company regulations
  4. all of the above answers are correct
46. According to the Regulation of the Council of Ministers on the types of technical devices subject to technical inspection, the following are subject to technical inspection regulations:
  1. lifts, cranes, overhead cranes, winches, and hoists
  2. lift trucks with a mechanical lifting drive, mobile platforms
  3. ropeways, cabin, and chair conveyors
  4. all of the above answers are correct
47. The operation manual may NOT contain:
  1. information on the dates and scope of maintenance inspections of the handling equipment (UTB)
  2. basic parameters and the intended use of the handling equipment (UTB)
  3. dates of technical inspections performed by the inspection unit
  4. information on how to operate the device
48. The device’s revision book must contain:
  1. a collection of reports from inspections performed by the inspection unit
  2. a document in which maintenance inspections are recorded
  3. the text of current legal acts
  4. a list of authorized operators
49. A decision issued by the UDT (Office of Technical Inspection):
  1. is not subject to appeal
  2. may be changed by a PIP (National Labour Inspectorate) inspector
  3. is subject to the possibility of appeal by the operator/owner
  4. each answer is incorrect
50. A person who may take the qualification examination is one who:
  1. has submitted an application for the verification of qualifications
  2. is at least 18 years old
  3. has no medical contraindications for operating technical equipment
  4. all of the above answers are correct
51. After a technical inspection is completed with a positive result, the UDT inspector:
  1. extends the validity of the operator’s qualification certificate
  2. marks the device with a sticker, which constitutes a permit to use the device
  3. informs the user in writing in the maintenance log that they agree to the operation of the device
  4. prepares a report on the activities performed and issues an administrative decision authorizing the operation
52. Qualification certificates:
  1. are valid indefinitely
  2. are for a fixed term with a validity period depending on the number of points obtained in the exam
  3. are for a fixed term with a validity period consistent with the provisions of the regulation on the procedure for verifying qualifications
  4. are valid for a period of 15 years
53. A person who makes alterations to a technical device without agreement with the competent technical inspection authority:
  1. is subject to a fine or restriction of liberty
  2. is subject to a penalty notice (fine)
  3. is not subject to a penalty
  4. all of the above answers are incorrect
54. A person who allows a technical device to be operated without a valid decision authorizing operation:
  1. is subject to a fine or restriction of liberty
  2. is not subject to a penalty, provided that no accident occurs
  3. is subject only to a fine
  4. is subject to imprisonment
55. An operation manual is:
  1. a collection of information necessary for the safe operation of the device, provided by the manufacturer
  2. a collection of recommendations issued by the Office of Technical Inspection
  3. a manual that must be created by the user of the device
  4. all of the above answers are correct
56. Qualification certificates for operation are not required:
  1. if the device is operated by its owner
  2. if all mechanisms of the device are manually powered
  3. if the device is used for private, non-commercial purposes
  4. for persons over 60 years of age
57. A person holding qualification certificates may operate:
  1. only the devices listed in the scope of the authorization
  2. all devices subject to technical inspection
  3. other devices subject to technical inspection with the employer’s consent
  4. all handling equipment (UTB) with a lifting capacity up to 3.2 t
58. The responsibility of a technical equipment operator includes:
  1. refusing to operate the device if the decision authorizing its operation has expired
  2. always complying with the supervisor’s instructions to operate the device
  3. complying with the provisions contained in the operation manual
  4. answers a and c are correct
59. Qualification certificates for operating technical equipment are:
  1. valid within the European Union
  2. valid with an identity document
  3. valid indefinitely
  4. all of the above answers are correct
60. An operator who witnesses an accident is obliged to:
  1. provide assistance to the victim (or victims) of the accident
  2. secure the scene of the incident
  3. notify the supervisor
  4. all of the above answers are correct
61. An operator is NOT allowed to:
  1. lift loads whose weight they cannot determine
  2. check the technical condition of the device
  3. comply with the provisions contained in the operation manual
  4. perform external visual inspections of the device
62. The forms of technical inspection are:
  1. full inspection, simplified inspection, limited inspection
  2. acceptance test, periodic test, and ad-hoc test
  3. UDT, TDT, WDT
  4. all of the above answers are correct
63. Lifting persons with devices that were designed and manufactured exclusively for lifting loads:
  1. is permissible after ensuring an appropriate level of safety
  2. is prohibited
  3. is permissible after agreeing on detailed operating conditions with the competent technical inspection authority
  4. is permissible as a one-off event upon a written order from a supervisor
64. Lifting loads using two or more handling units (UTB):
  1. is permissible, provided that the operator (owner/user) develops detailed operating conditions describing organizational and technical activities that minimize risk
  2. is always permissible if the mass of the load does not exceed the sum of the capacities of the devices used
  3. is permissible if the mass of the load does not exceed half of the capacity of each device used
  4. is never permissible
65. The presence of persons under a moved load is:
  1. always prohibited
  2. allowed for persons inspecting the bottom of the load
  3. allowed if the safety factor of the slings is not less than 5
  4. allowed if the safety factor of the slings is not less than 7
66. Moving loads over persons is:
  1. allowed provided that written permission is obtained from the person directing the transport
  2. allowed after ensuring safety factors for slings and gripping devices
  3. allowed provided that persons are notified and equipped with personal protective equipment
  4. all of the above answers are incorrect
67. Qualification certificates for operating technical equipment subject to technical inspection are issued by:
  1. the owner of the device
  2. UDT, TDT, WDT
  3. PIP (National Labour Inspectorate)
  4. all of the above answers are incorrect
68. The examination commission notifies the interested person of the exam result:
  1. within 7 days after the exam in writing
  2. immediately after the exam
  3. within 14 days after the exam in electronic form
  4. by registered mail or e-mail after 30 working days from the exam date
69. The maintenance log should be kept:
  1. only in paper form
  2. in electronic or paper form
  3. only in electronic form
  4. by the operator
70. The workplace instruction:
  1. is always provided along with the operating manual by the device manufacturer
  2. constitutes an unwritten set of customs adopted in the workplace
  3. is issued by the employer and contains detailed health and safety (BHP) instructions for the workplace
  4. does not apply to operators of mobile devices
71. After the expiry of the qualification certificate for operating the device, the operator:
  1. may operate the equipment as long as they continue to work for the same employer
  2. may operate the equipment as long as they submit an application for a new certificate
  3. may operate the equipment only after obtaining a new qualification certificate
  4. submits an application to extend the validity of the qualification certificate
72. Extension of the validity of the qualification certificate occurs:
  1. upon the written request of the operator
  2. automatically after the expiry of the certificate’s validity
  3. upon the written notification of the operator’s employer
  4. after a prior telephone notification
73. The capacity (lifting capacity) of a handling unit (UTB) is a parameter directly related to:
  1. the maximum height of the lifted load
  2. the maximum volume of the lifted load
  3. the maximum mass of the lifted load
  4. the product of the mass and volume of the lifted load
74. The net mass of 1000 liters of water is approximately:
  1. 800 kg
  2. 900 kg
  3. 1000 kg
  4. 1100 kg
75. The mass of a load consisting of 40 packages of 25 kg each is:
  1. 800 kg
  2. 1000 kg
  3. 1100 kg
  4. 900 kg
76. The mass of 60 cartons of 20 kg each is:
  1. 800 kg
  2. 1000 kg
  3. 1100 kg
  4. 1200 kg
77. The mass of a lifted load can be determined on the basis of:
  1. a collective tag located on the transported load
  2. calculating by considering the specific gravity and volume
  3. shipping and warehouse documentation
  4. all of the above answers are correct
78. Information regarding the capacity of the device can be found:
  1. in the operation manual
  2. on the nameplate
  3. on the technical device itself
  4. all of the above answers are correct
79. The correct unit of lifting capacity is:
  1. kg
  2. Pa
  3. mth
  4. mm
80. The crane main switch (isolator):
  1. should be located on the crane bridge
  2. can be replaced by an emergency “STOP” button
  3. should be capable of being locked in the “ON” position
  4. should be capable of being locked in the “OFF” (disconnected) position
81. Safety lugs (drop stops) are:
  1. elements used to prevent foreign objects from getting under the crane wheels
  2. elements protecting against the effects of a crane wheel or axle fracture
  3. elements used to protect the crane against unintended movement
  4. elements protecting the track structure
82. Rail sweeps (scrapers) are:
  1. elements used to prevent foreign objects from getting under the crane wheels
  2. elements protecting against the effects of a crane wheel fracture
  3. elements used to protect the crane against unintended movement
  4. elements protecting the track structure
83. Rail clamps are:
  1. elements used to prevent foreign objects from getting under the crane wheels
  2. elements protecting against the effects of a crane wheel fracture
  3. elements used to protect the crane against unintended movement
  4. elements protecting the track structure
84. What are the differences between a hoist and a winch?
  1. hoist – compact construction; winch – built on a frame, components visible
  2. hoist – built on a frame, components visible; winch – compact construction
  3. there is no difference, they are the same devices
  4. all of the above answers are incorrect
85. Electrical safety devices used in crane construction are:
  1. rail sweeps
  2. safety lugs
  3. crane mechanism motors
  4. limit switches
86. Mechanical safety devices used in crane construction are:
  1. safety lugs
  2. starting resistors
  3. STOP switches
  4. safety brakes
87. Which element of the supporting structure connects the end carriages?
  1. reducer
  2. hoist
  3. winch
  4. girder
88. Where are safety lugs mounted?
  1. on the crane platform
  2. to the bottom flange of the end carriage
  3. at the ends of the track
  4. on the resistors/starting resistors
89. How many rope clamping elements (pressure elements) should be mounted on the rope drum?
  1. according to the manufacturer’s documentation
  2. at least 4
  3. more than 3
  4. 4 over a section of at least 1.5 rope wraps on the drum
90. The main switch (isolator) should NOT disconnect the following circuits:
  1. power supply to travel motors
  2. crane control circuits
  3. crane power supply
  4. crane lighting
91. The main elements of the crane’s supporting structure are:
  1. end carriages and girders
  2. buffers and girders
  3. hoisting ropes and the hook block
  4. none of the above answers are correct
92. What is the purpose of the zero interlock (zero-position protection)?
  1. it prevents the main contactor from being switched on if at least one of the controllers is not in the neutral position
  2. it cuts off the crane’s power supply in an emergency situation
  3. it prevents the control lever from being moved when the main contactor is not switched on
  4. it ensures proper zeroing (grounding) of the steel crane structure
93. Hoisting mechanisms of general-purpose cranes should use the following brakes:
  1. automatic
  2. band brakes
  3. three drum brakes
  4. at least two disc brakes
94. The STOP switch:
  1. completely disconnects the crane’s power supply
  2. is a safety switch
  3. disconnects the electromagnetic gripper circuit
  4. must automatically return to the starting position after being released
95. The “crane switch” (main isolator) should be located:
  1. on the crane bridge
  2. in the control cabin
  3. in a generally accessible place at the working level
  4. in the immediate vicinity of the control cabinet
96. Mechanical safety elements include:
  1. bumpers, buffers, anti-wind rail clamps
  2. bumpers, buffers, rail sweeps
  3. bumpers, buffers, protective railings
  4. all of the above answers are correct
97. Which of the following elements are mechanical safety devices?
  1. bumpers, buffers, anti-wind rail clamps, safety lugs, hook safety latch, load capacity limiter
  2. bumpers, buffers, anti-wind rail clamps, main switch, hook safety latch, guards
  3. bumpers, buffers, anti-wind rail clamps, safety lugs, hook safety latch, guards
  4. bumpers, buffers, anti-wind rail clamps, limit and end switches
98. Unless otherwise specified by the manufacturer, what is the permissible wear of the hook throat of a general-purpose crane?
  1. 5%
  2. 3%
  3. 10%
  4. 7%
99. Unless otherwise specified by the manufacturer, what is the permissible opening (increase in width) of the hook throat?
  1. 2%
  2. 5%
  3. 7%
  4. 10%
100. Which mechanical safety devices are located on the end carriage?
  1. bumpers, anti-wind rail clamps, safety lugs
  2. buffers, anti-wind rail clamps, safety lugs
  3. bumpers, safety lugs, brakes
  4. bumpers, buffers, safety lugs, rail clamps
101. Unless otherwise specified by the manufacturer, what is the permissible reduction in rope diameter due to wear of the outer layer of wires?
  1. up to 3%
  2. 10% but not more than 5mm
  3. up to 15%
  4. up to 7%
102. Should every crane operating outdoors be equipped with an anemometer (wind gauge)?
  1. yes
  2. no
  3. it depends on the type of control (from the cabin or from the working level)
  4. no, if it is equipped with wind clamps
103. Should every crane operating outdoors be equipped with anti-wind rail clamps?
  1. yes
  2. no
  3. yes, if its span exceeds 25 m
  4. only gantry and semi-gantry cranes are equipped with anti-wind rail clamps
104. Must every crane controlled from a cabin have a zero interlock?
  1. always in the case of using master controllers or control switches
  2. a zero interlock is not required if the main contactor disconnects automatically after a voltage drop
  3. always in the case of using master controllers or control switches without return springs
  4. only with inverter drives for all crane mechanisms
105. The “STOP” safety switch is used for:
  1. protecting the crane against unauthorized use after finishing work
  2. immediate stopping of the device’s operation in emergency situations
  3. activating emergency brakes in the event of a main brake failure
  4. all of the above answers are correct
106. Crane bumpers are:
  1. stationary safety elements located at the end of the runway
  2. mechanical safety elements placed on the end carriage
  3. both elements placed at the ends of runways and those installed on end carriages
  4. none of the above answers are correct
107. A complete check of the hoisting mechanism brake consists of:
  1. lifting a load with a mass not exceeding the nominal capacity of the device to a height of 2 m, then lowering it and stopping it abruptly
  2. lifting a load with a mass not exceeding the nominal capacity to a small height so that the load loses contact with the ground, observing if the load does not drop spontaneously, and then raising it, lowering it, and stopping it abruptly
  3. activating the lowering mechanism without a suspended load and observing if the hook block stops before it touches the working level
  4. activating the hoisting mechanism without a suspended load in the upward direction and observing if the hook block stops before it touches the working level
108. The task of a safety lug (drop stop) is:
  1. stopping the crane if the bridge travel limit switch fails to work
  2. protecting a gantry crane against the effects of strong wind gusts
  3. protecting a hoist or winch from falling in the event of a rope break
  4. protecting the crane against the effects of a travel wheel fracture
109. The zero interlock of cabin-controlled cranes prevents:
  1. starting the device by unauthorized persons
  2. automatic starting of the device when voltage appears in the control system
  3. switching off the crane control system if the anti-wind clamps are activated
  4. operating the crane if a lack of grounding (zeroing) is detected
110. What is the purpose of anti-wind protection devices?
  1. they protect against the effects of a lightning strike on the crane structur
  2. they protect against the unintended movement of the crane
  3. they are used for the intentional braking of the travel mechanism during operation
  4. they are used to immobilize the bridge structure for safe crane operation during strong winds
111. The photo shows the following crane:
  1. cantilever crane
  2. gantry crane
  3. overhead traveling crane with a jib
  4. semi-gantry crane
112. The hoisting mechanism limit switch in the “up” direction:
  1. is responsible for braking the load during the lifting cycle
  2. facilitates the operator’s work, as they do not have to observe the load in the upper position because the limit switch will automatically turn off the lifting at the right moment
  3. serves to protect the crane from damage and prevent rope breakage
  4. all of the above answers are correct
113. What does the marking Q = 10 t + 10 t on the crane bridge mean?
  1. the crane has a nominal capacity of 10 t
  2. the crane has a mass of 10 t and a nominal capacity also of 10 t
  3. the crane has two hoisting mechanisms
  4. the capacity of the crane, depending on the number of falls of the hoisting rope, is 10 t or 20 t
114. What is a cross-interlock (mechanical interlock) in a control pendant?
  1. this interlock prevents the simultaneous activation of opposite directions of a mechanism’s movement
  2. this interlock means that the “X” button must be pressed before starting the pendant
  3. an interlock preventing the control of the crane from two places at the same time
  4. the cross-interlock in a control pendant is the equivalent of a zero interlock in a cabincontrolled crane
115. Master controllers (joysticks/levers) are crane elements used for:
  1. positioning the crane parallel on the runway
  2. remote control of crane mechanisms
  3. indirect control of crane mechanisms
  4. direct control of crane mechanisms
116. A mechanical travel stop for the crane mounted on the runway track is:
  1. a safety lug (drop stop)
  2. a limit switch
  3. a buffer (stop)
  4. a bumper
117. What is the nominal capacity of a crane marked Q = 10/3.2 t?
  1. 10 t
  2. 13,2 t
  3. 3,2 t
  4. 10 t when connected in star and 3.2 t when connected in delta
118. The activation of the load capacity limiter will cause:
  1. all crane mechanisms to switch of
  2. the hoisting mechanism to switch off in both directions
  3. the hoisting mechanism movement to switch off in the “up” direction
  4. none of the above answers are correct
119. An end carriage is an element of:
  1. a crane
  2. a hoist
  3. a winch
  4. a hook block
120. Unless the manufacturer has specified otherwise, the travel mechanism limit switches of the crane are intended to:
  1. stop the crane before it hits an obstacle or another crane
  2. prevent overloading of the crane
  3. prevent hitting the buffers at a speed greater than 1.5 m/s
  4. prevent the crane from hitting the buffer at nominal speed
121. The STOP switch at the crane operator’s station is used for:
  1. switching off crane movements in end positions
  2. switching off the crane during crane maintenance work
  3. immediate stopping of the crane in dangerous situations
  4. activating the emergency brake
122. In the case of two or more cranes operating on one runway, the electrical safety devices preventing cranes from colliding with each other are:
  1. limit switches
  2. an anti-collision system
  3. load limiters
  4. movement deceleration limiters
123. Travel directions in a radio-controlled crane should be marked:
  1. on the crane structure in a place visible to the operator and on the radio control remote
  2. in the crane cabin
  3. before entering the hall where the crane operates
  4. on every visible support pillar of the runway
124. The abbreviation GNP (in Polish context) stands for:
  1. Boundary Nominal Speed
  2. Working Load Limit (WLL)
  3. Low Current Socket
  4. Duty Group (Classification)
125. The protection against the load falling out of the hook throat is:
  1. tying the slings to the hook
  2. a safety latch
  3. with proper placement of the slings in the throat, no protection is required
  4. a rigid sling, i.e., a spreader beam (traverse)
126. What color should the STOP emergency stop switch be marked with?
  1. yellow
  2. any
  3. red
  4. black and yellow
127. A crane girder is:
  1. the maximum mass of a load that a crane can lift
  2. a beam that is an element of the crane’s supporting structure
  3. a set of levers for controlling the hoisting mechanism in a gantry crane
  4. a support element of the crane track or runway
128. What type of hooks can be used in blocks?
  1. hooks can be made of plastic
  2. hooks should be made as forged or plate hooks
  3. hooks can be made of any material
  4. crane hooks should be steel castings
129. In which cranes is the use of a hoisting mechanism limit switch in the “up”
direction NOT required?
  1. in cranes with a wire rope winch
  2. in cranes with a chain hoist that utilize a friction clutch
  3. a hoisting mechanism limit switch must be strictly used in all cranes
  4. in rope and chain hoists with a capacity of up to 1000 kg
130. Unless the manufacturer specifies otherwise, the minimum distance at which the hook block must stop, measured from the lowest elements of the crane, is:
  1. 5 cm
  2. 10 cm
  3. 20 cm
  4. 15 cm
131. Crane bumpers are mounted:
  1. at the end of the runway track
  2. on the end carriages
  3. on the girders
  4. on the longitudinal beams
132. What is the permissible number of visible cracks on a crane hook?
  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 10%
133. A safety element mounted in the hoisting mechanism of cranes can be:
  1. a load capacity limiter
  2. a hoisting mechanism limit switch
  3. an overload friction clutch
  4. all of the above answers are correct
134. The capacity marking 8t+8t on a crane indicates that:
  1. the crane can lift a load weighing 16 t on one of the two hoisting mechanisms
  2. the crane can lift a load not exceeding 16 t, assuming that both hoisting mechanisms are used simultaneously and neither is overloaded
  3. each of the crane’s hoisting mechanisms can lift a load weighing 16 t
  4. the nominal capacity of the crane is 8 t
135. The basic parameters of a hoist include:
  1. lifting capacity
  2. lifting height
  3. speed of working movements
  4. all of the above answers are correct
136. Checking the zero interlock:
  1. is performed with the STOP button pressed
  2. is performed with the rated load
  3. does not require moving the control levers – the interlock is checked with the lever in the neutral position
  4. requires moving all master controllers in all directions
137. During the zero interlock check:
  1. the crane’s main switch must be turned on
  2. the “start” button in the cabin must be pressed and locked
  3. the load is lifted above the working level
  4. the STOP button must be pressed
138. Is the operator allowed to overload the crane during work in certain situations?
  1. yes, during tests before starting work
  2. yes, upon a written order from a supervisor
  3. yes, but sporadically
  4. no, it is prohibited
139. Can a sling be hooked onto the tip of the hook (on the horn of the hook)?
  1. yes, after ensuring that the sling will not fall of
  2. no, never
  3. yes, when it does not pose a danger
  4. only in the case of hooks with a safety latch
140. Lifting loads through an opening in the floor from a lower story:
  1. is permissible after meeting appropriate conditions
  2. is absolutely impermissible
  3. is permissible only in relation to cranes with a capacity below 250 kg
  4. does not provide kinematic continuity, so it is not allowed
141. During the loading of a truck using a crane, the driver of the vehicle should be located:
  1. in the vehicle cabin
  2. on the loading platform of the vehicle
  3. anywhere in the workplace
  4. outside the crane’s working zone
142. In the event of load swaying, the operator should:
  1. wait until the load stops swaying, warning people nearby of the danger of impact
  2. stop the load manually at all costs; if it is a large load, ask other employees for help
  3. dampen the swaying of the load by the appropriate movement of the crane or hoist
  4. place it immediately on the ground
143. A cubic meter of steel weighs approximately:
  1. 1000 kg
  2. 4,5 – 5,0 t
  3. 1,0 t
  4. 7,5 – 7,9 t
144. A load of steel plates with a volume of 0.5 cubic meters:
  1. can be lifted by a crane with a capacity of at least 0.5 t
  2. can be lifted by a crane with a capacity of no less than 4 tons
  3. a special-purpose crane of any capacity must be used
  4. none of the above answers are correct
145. In the case of lifting a large load and the presence of several slingers (hook-on men) issuing commands to the crane operator:
  1. it is not permissible for more than one slinger to participate during the load lifting operation
  2. follow the commands of one, previously designated slinger, with the exception of the STOP signal, which can be issued by any of the slingers
  3. follow the commands of all slingers, with the exception of the STOP signal, which can be issued by only one previously designated slinger
  4. follow the commands in the order they are issued
146. Loads may be stored:
  1. anywhere, provided that the dimensions of the load allow for it
  2. on transport routes
  3. only in designated areas
  4. in places designated by the UDT inspector
147. A crane with a pneumatic gripper can be used for lifting:
  1. only ferromagnetic plates
  2. only glass panes
  3. plates made of any material as well as glass panes
  4. exclusively plastics with a smooth outer surface structure
148. A hoist mechanism brake test is negative if:
  1. the brake shoes and the brake disc are not lubricated
  2. after releasing the brake, the distance between the friction linings and the brake disc is uniform and not greater than specified in the documentation
  3. with the brake shoes tightened, the stroke of the brake release armature is utilized at 80%
  4. a load with a mass equal to or less than the capacity is not held at the set height
149. Unless the manufacturer provides otherwise, the hoist mechanism limit switch in the “down” direction should be set so that:
  1. at least 1.5 m of rope remains on the drum
  2. at least 2.5 m of rope remains on the drum, including the section used for its attachment
  3. at least 1.5 wraps of rope remain on the drum, not counting the section used for its attachment
  4. at least half of the rope length remains on the drum
150. An essential criterion for hook wear is:
  1. cracking
  2. hook throat opening
  3. reduction of the cross-section in the gripping part
  4. all of the above answers are correct
151. Checking the hoist mechanism limit switch in the “up” direction is performed:
  1. with nominal load
  2. without load
  3. with a 110% load
  4. with the largest load available at the moment that does not exceed the crane’s capacity
152. A broken strand of the crane’s hoisting rope means that:
  1. work can continue until the current loading/unloading is finished or until the end of the shift
  2. work can continue only until the rope is replaced with a new one
  3. work can continue only on the condition that the remaining strands and the core have not been damaged
  4. work must be terminated immediately
153. The following drawing shows a tag (identification) of:
  1. a chain sling
  2. a wire rope sling
  3. a webbing (belt) sling
  4. a specialized spreader beam (traverse)
154. The following drawing shows a tag (identification) of:
  1. a chain sling
  2. a wire rope sling
  3. a webbing (belt) sling
  4. a specialized spreader beam (traverse)
155. The following drawing shows a tag (identification) of:
  1. a chain sling
  2. a wire rope sling
  3. a webbing (belt) sling
  4. a specialized spreader beam (traverse)
156. A spreader beam (traverse) is used for:
  1. lifting special loads, e.g., metal sheets
  2. lifting long loads where the use of ordinary slings is impossible or difficult
  3. lifting loads that exceed the nominal capacity of the device
  4. all of the above answers are correct
157. The minimum capacity of a lifting device raising a load with a mass of 24 t using the presented spreader beam (mass of the spreader beam is included) is:
  1. 20,0 t
  2. 25,2 t
  3. 30,0 t
  4. all of the above answers are incorrect
158. The abbreviation DOR (in Polish context) stands for:
  1. Working Load Limit (WLL)
  2. permissible working load of a leg at an apex angle alpha of 120°
  3. permitted manual operation
  4. technical and operational documentation
159. A load on a ramshorn hook (sister hook) should be suspended:
  1. so that both horns are equally loaded
  2. so that the difference in the load of individual hook horns is not greater than 30%
  3. exclusively using a special sling for a ramshorn hook
  4. only using chain slings
160. The reduction of the WLL (DOR) of a multi-leg sling is affected by:
  1. the number of legs used
  2. additional operational restrictions contained in the sling’s manual
  3. the angle between the legs (sling angle)
  4. all of the above answers are correct
161. Based on the presented drawing, indicate value A for the wire rope sling:
  1. 6,0 t
  2. 5,0 t
  3. 7.0 t
  4. 3,5 t
162. Based on the presented drawing, indicate value A for the wire rope sling:
  1. 2,0 t
  2. 5,0 t
  3. 7,0 t
  4. 10,0 t
163. The drawing shows:
  1. a nameplate of a two-leg chain sling
  2. a nameplate of a chain sling with a maximum capacity of 2,500 kg
  3. a nameplate of a chain sling with a maximum capacity of 3,550 kg
  4. answers a and c are correct
164. Based on the presented drawing, indicate value A (angle alpha) for the two-leg sling:
  1. 100°
  2. 90°
  3. 70°
  4. 50°
165. Based on the presented drawing, indicate value A (angle alpha) for the two-leg sling:
  1. 120°
  2. 90°
  3. 70°
  4. 50°
166. Based on the presented drawing, indicate value A (WLL based on angle alpha) for the two-leg sling:
  1. 70%
  2. 90%
  3. 110%
  4. 50%
167. Based on the presented drawing, indicate value A (WLL based on angle alpha) for the two-leg sling::
  1. 70%
  2. 90%
  3. 110%
  4. 50%
168. Based on the presented drawing, indicate value A (WLL based on the hitch method) for the webbing sling:
  1. 1
  2. 1,4
  3. 0,8
  4. 2
169. Based on the presented drawing, indicate value A (WLL based on the hitch method) for the webbing sling:
  1. 1
  2. 1,4
  3. 0,8
  4. 2
170. Based on the presented drawing, indicate value A (WLL based on the hitch method) for the webbing sling:
  1. 1
  2. 1,4
  3. 0,8
  4. 2
171. Indicate which of the load suspension methods is correct:
  1. Drawing A
  2. Drawing B
  3. Both methods are correct
  4. Both methods are incorrect
172. Indicate which of the load suspension methods using a wire rope sling is correct:
  1. Drawing A
  2. Drawing B
  3. Both methods are correct
  4. Both methods are incorrect
173. The following drawing shows:
  1. interchangeable equipment mounted on the heads of lifting devices
  2. an element of the lifting system for forklifts
  3. a specialized sling for transporting loads placed on transport pallets
  4. all of the above answers are incorrect
174. The following drawing shows:
  1. a specialized sling for transporting steel and concrete pipes
  2. a tong gripper for handling scrap metal
  3. a specialized sling for transporting loads placed on transport pallets
  4. an element of rail clamps
175. The specialized sling shown in the drawing is used for:
  1. lifting steel sheets
  2. lifting steel bars
  3. lifting concrete elements
  4. lifting plastic elements
176. The specialized sling shown in the drawing is used for:
  1. lifting concrete elements
  2. lifting plastic elements
  3. lifting steel sheets
  4. lifting steel bars
177. Responsibility for the correct selection of a sling lies with:
  1. the slinger (hook-on man)
  2. the operator (applies to situations where the operator is responsible for hooking the load)
  3. the plant’s health and safety (BHP) services
  4. answers a and b are correct
178. Slings are subject to periodic inspections within deadlines:
  1. every 30 days
  2. every 2 months
  3. they are not subject to periodic inspections
  4. consistent with the provisions of the sling’s operation manual
179. The choice of the type of sling used depends on:
  1. the type of material being moved
  2. the availability of the sling and the distance between the workplace and its storage location
  3. the environmental conditions of the sling’s workplace, e.g., temperature, UV radiation, air humidity
  4. answers a and c are correct
180. Before starting work, the operator is obliged to:
  1. based on the mass of the lifted loads, select a sling with the appropriate WLL (DOR)
  2. based on the type of lifted loads, select a sling of the correct construction
  3. assess the technical condition of the sling in terms of its wear
  4. all of the above answers are correct
181. A sling is:
  1. an element enabling the transport of a load
  2. an element placed between the lifting device and the load
  3. an element whose mass must be taken into account when lifting a load
  4. all of the above answers are correct
182. Slings can be divided:
  1. based on the material from which they were made
  2. based on the number of load-bearing legs
  3. based on the type of legs
  4. all of the above answers are correct
183. The WLL (DOR) of a webbing (belt) sling can be determined by:
  1. testing the strength with a test weight
  2. measuring the thickness of the belt
  3. checking the information on the ID tag/label
  4. all of the above answers are correct
184. Working with a sling without a nameplate (identification tag):
  1. is prohibited
  2. is permissible provided that extreme caution is exercised
  3. is permissible provided the capacity of the slings is determined based on the hook number
  4. is permissible with the maintenance technician’s consent
185. Chain slings:
  1. can only be terminated with a hook
  2. can have terminations other than a hook, e.g., shackles
  3. can be used in any ambient temperature
  4. do not require maintenance
186. The maximum permissible apex angle α used in a sling may be:
  1. 120°
  2. 100°
  3. there are no restrictions, as it is enough to reduce the working load limit of the sling
  4. 90°
187. The maximum angle β (angle of inclination from the vertical) in a sling may be:
  1. 120°
  2. 60°
  3. only angle $\alpha$ is taken into account
  4. there are no restrictions, as it is enough to reduce the working load limit of the sling
188. Indicate which of the load suspension methods using a wire rope sling is incorrect:
  1. Drawing A
  2. Drawing B
  3. Drawing C
  4. Drawing D
189. Indicate which of the hook attachment methods is correct:
  1. Drawing A
  2. Drawing B
  3. Drawing C
  4. Drawing D
190. Indicate which of the hook attachment methods are incorrect:
  1. Drawings A, B, C
  2. Drawings A, B, D
  3. Drawings A, C, D
  4. Drawings A, B, C, D
191. Based on the presented drawing, indicate value A for the two-leg sling:
  1. 120%
  2. 90%
  3. 70%
  4. 10%
192. Based on the presented drawing, indicate value A for the two-leg sling:
  1. 120%
  2. 90%
  3. 70%
  4. 50%
193. Unless otherwise specified by the manufacturer, the permissible wear criteria for sling hooks are:
  1. opening by 5% and throat wear by 10%
  2. opening by 20% and throat wear by 10%
  3. opening and throat wear by 1%
  4. hook dimensions do not change during operation
194. Unless otherwise specified by the manufacturer, the permissible number of wire breaks in a wire rope sling is:
  1. 1% of wires in a strand over a length of 6 diameters and 10% over a length of 30 diameters
  2. 5 wires in a strand over a length of 6 diameters and 10 over a length of 30 diameters
  3. 10% of strands
  4. all of the above answers are incorrect
195. Which of the following damages disqualify a wire rope sling from further operation?
  1. a strand break in the rope
  2. a local reduction in diameter due to the breakage of the rope core
  3. a basket-type deformation
  4. all of the above answers are correct
196. As the apex angle alpha increases:
  1. the Working Load Limit (WLL) increases
  2. he Working Load Limit (WLL) decreases
  3. the Working Load Limit remains unchanged because the angle only affects the crane’s capacity
  4. the apex angle is only significant at a value of alpha = 120 degrees
197. Angles alpha and beta in relation to slings:
  1. are always equal to each other
  2. angle alpha is half of angle beta
  3. angle beta is half of angle alpha
  4. all of the above answers are incorrect
198. When lifting elements with sharp edges using a webbing (belt) sling, the operator should:
  1. use special protective sleeves or pads to protect the sling from sharp edges
  2. never use webbing slings
  3. wrap the load twice to prevent the belt from being rubbed through
  4. use only polyester webbing slings
199. The WLL (DOR) value of a multi-leg sling is:
  1. a value dependent on the lifting capacity of the crane
  2. a variable value and depends on the angle between the sling legs
  3. dependent on the mass of the transported load
  4. a constant value
200. Using slings at temperatures above 100°C is:
  1. permissible, but for a short period of time
  2. permissible provided that the sling’s manual allows for it
  3. prohibited
  4. permissible only when using chain slings
201. The following drawing shows:
  1. a tag of a four-leg chain sling
  2. a tag of a wire rope sling with a leg length of 10 m
  3. a tag of a special sling
  4. all of the above answers are correct
202. The maximum WLL (DOR) of the presented sling is:
  1. 8,4 t
  2. 6,0 t
  3. 10,0 t
  4. 8,0 t
203. The maximum WLL (DOR) of the presented sling at an angle beta of 60° is:
  1. 10,0 t
  2. 8,4 t
  3. 6,0 t
  4. 4,0 t
204. The maximum WLL (DOR) of the presented sling at an angle beta of 45° is:
  1. 8,4 t
  2. 8,0 t
  3. 6,0 t
  4. 4,0 t
205. Based on the presented drawing, indicate the correct method of hook attachment:
  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
206. The maximum mass of the lifted load at an angle beta of 55° must not exceed:
  1. 12000 kg
  2. 9000 kg
  3. 6000 kg
  4. all of the above answers are incorrect
207. The maximum mass of the lifted load at an angle beta of 40° must not exceed:
  1. 12000 kg
  2. 9000 kg
  3. 6000 kg
  4. all of the above answers are incorrect
208. The maximum mass of the lifted load at an angle beta of 50° must not exceed:
  1. 12000 kg
  2. 9000 kg
  3. 6000 kg
  4. all of the above answers are incorrect
209. The maximum mass of the lifted load at an angle beta of 65° must not exceed:
  1. 12000 kg
  2. 9000 kg
  3. 6000 kg
  4. lifting is not allowed
210. Based on the presented drawing, determine the maximum mass of the load that can be lifted using a 4-leg sling:
  1. 6 t
  2. 8,4 t
  3. 12 t
  4. all of the above answers are incorrect
211. Based on the presented drawing, determine the maximum mass of the load that can be lifted using a 4-leg sling:
  1. 6 t
  2. 8,4 t
  3. 12 t
  4. answers a and b are correct
212. Based on the presented drawing, determine the maximum mass of the load that can be lifted using a 4-leg sling:
  1. 7 t
  2. 8,4 t
  3. 12 t
  4. all of the above answers are incorrect
213. Which of the presented specialized slings can be used for lifting metal plates in a vertical position:
  1. FIG. 1
  2. FIG. 2
  3. FIG. 3
  4. FIG. 4
214. Which of the presented lifting equipment can be used for lifting metal plates in a horizontal position:
  1. FIG. 1
  2. FIG. 2
  3. FIG. 3
  4. FIG. 4
215. Which of the presented lifting equipment can be used for lifting I-beam steel girders:
  1. FIG. 1
  2. FIG. 2
  3. FIG. 3
  4. FIG. 4
216. Which of the presented lifting equipment can be used for lifting steel bars of significant length:
  1. FIG. 1
  2. FIG. 2
  3. FIG. 3
  4. FIG. 4
217. Which of the presented lifting equipment can be used for lifting loads stored on transport pallets:
  1. FIG. 1
  2. FIG. 2
  3. FIG. 3
  4. FIG.. 4
218. Which of the presented lifting equipment can be used for lifting a sheet of metal in a horizontal position:
  1. FIG. 1 i FIG. 2
  2. FIG. 2 i FIG. 3
  3. FIG. 3 i FIG. 4
  4. FIG. 4 i FIG. 1
219.In the photo below, the alpha symbol denotes:
  1. the opening angle of the sling legs
  2. the maximum apex angle
  3. a value determining the lifting capacity of the sling
  4. the WLL (DOR) of the sling
220. In the photo below, the beta symbol denotes:
  1. the length of the sling
  2. the angle of inclination of the legs from the vertical
  3. a two-leg chain sling
  4. all of the above answers are incorrect
221. Which of the following conditions must a sling strictly meet for moving a load:
  1. the lifting capacity of the sling must not be less than the mass of the lifted load
  2. the length of the sling must ensure that the apex angle of the sling is not greater than 120°
  3. the sling must have a legible identification tag
  4. all of the above answers are correct
222. Before starting work with the crane, the operator should:
  1. conduct a dynamic test with a load of 110% of the capacity
  2. check the brake release stroke
  3. measure the hook throat opening
  4. check the operation of the brakes with the load they will be transporting
223. In the event of a crane failure with a load on the hook, the operator should perform the following actions:
  1. secure the area
  2. notify the supervisor
  3. turn off the power supply to the crane
  4. all of the above answers are correct
224. The operator is prohibited from:
  1. utilizing the maximum travel speed of the crane
  2. moving loads over people
  3. working during rainfall
  4. combining working movements provided for in the manual
225. Checking the operation of limit switches:
  1. is solely the responsibility of the maintenance technician
  2. should be carried out only at the highest travel speeds
  3. is carried out only during UDT inspections
  4. must be carried out before starting work
226. A brake test is carried out:
  1. before starting work with the crane
  2. only during inspections carried out by UDT
  3. only after a rope replacement
  4. only in the presence of a maintenance technician
227. In the case where a strand in the rope is squeezed out (protruding):
  1. crane operation must be stopped immediately
  2. the rope can be secured with additional elements
  3. it can be used, but sudden movements should not be made
  4. it can be operated with the capacity limited by half
228. When the crane becomes damaged:
  1. work must be stopped
  2. work can be continued provided that extreme caution is exercised
  3. work can be continued, but the capacity must be reduced by half
  4. it can be operated upon a written order from a supervisor
229. A test of the hoisting mechanism limit switch in the “up” direction is carried out:
  1. with a load equal to 50% of the nominal capacity
  2. with a load equal to 100% of the nominal capacity
  3. without a load
  4. with the largest currently available weight not exceeding the lifting capacity
230. A limiter for the working movements of crane mechanisms is:
  1. a load capacity limiter
  2. a “STOP” emergency stop switch
  3. a safety lug (drop stop)
  4. a limit switch
231. After finishing work, the hook block should be:
  1. left in the upper extreme position
  2. left without a load or slings on the hook, at a safe height
  3. left with slings still suspended from the hook
  4. hung on a dedicated hanger at the crane’s parking spot
232. What does the information 20/5 t placed on the crane mean?
  1. the crane’s capacity is 5 t and the lifting height is 20 m
  2. the crane’s capacity is 20 t with the possibility of short-term overloading by 5 t
  3. the total capacity of the crane is 25 t
  4. none of the above answers are correct
233. What does the marking 25 t + 5 t on the crane mean?
  1. the crane has two hoisting mechanisms, one with a capacity of 25 t and the other 5 t, and they can be operated simultaneously
  2. the crane has one hoisting mechanism with a capacity of 25 t, which can be overloaded by a maximum of 5 t
  3. the crane has two hoisting mechanisms, one with a capacity of 25 t and the other 5 t, and they cannot be operated simultaneously
  4. none of the above answers are correct
234. At what height above people can a load be transported using a crane?
  1. up to 1.0 m, provided the person is wearing a helmet
  2. it is impermissible
  3. as high as possible, so as not to hit the head of the person under the load
  4. depending on the provisions of the device’s operating manual
235. At what height above obstacles (e.g., machines) is it recommended to transport a load using a crane?
  1. at a safe height, provided there are no people on the travel path
  2. it is impermissible
  3. 200 cm
  4. in every case at the maximum lifting height
236. For what purpose is the controllers’ zero interlock used?
  1. the zero interlock protects the crane against unauthorized use
  2. the zero interlock is used to protect the crane against overloading
  3. the zero interlock protects the crane against excessively strong wind
  4. it protects against the spontaneous start-up of mechanisms when voltage appears if the control levers are not in the zero position after a prior power failure
237. How should the swaying of large-dimension loads be prevented?
  1. the slinger holds the load by hand
  2. the operator holds the load by hand
  3. by using a tagline (safety rope) attached to the load
  4. all of the above answers are correct
238. When should a spreader beam (traverse) be used?
  1. if transporting very long loads
  2. if, when using a multi-leg sling, the angle between the legs exceeds 120°
  3. if the available slings are too short
  4. all of the above answers are correct
239.Is it permissible to lift loads stuck in the ground or frozen to it?
  1. yes, with the consent of the plant manager
  2. it is not permissible
  3. yes, after agreement with the slinger
  4. yes, but the load should first be dragged horizontally
240. Can a suspended load be left on the crane hook unattended during work?
  1. yes, because the load will never fall
  2. yes, if the slinger agrees and designates an appropriate danger zone
  3. it is not permissible
  4. this should be done for economically justified reasons
241. Can one load be lifted by two or more cranes?
  1. under no circumstances is it allowed to lift
  2. yes, after the user (owner) develops detailed operating conditions
  3. yes, after agreement with the operator of the second crane
  4. yes, but only using special-purpose cranes
242. Carrying people along with a load:
  1. is prohibited
  2. is allowed with the consent and at the order of the plant manager
  3. is prohibited when the sum of the weight of the load and the person exceeds the crane capacity
  4. is allowed only if the spare capacity exceeds 1 ton and the crane has two independent hoisting brakes
243. The “STOP” signal, which must be reacted to immediately, can be given by:
  1. only the slinger
  2. only the signaler
  3. any person
  4. only the plant or construction manager
244. How should a load be suspended on a ramshorn (sister) hook?
  1. the method of suspension does not matter
  2. so that one throat is loaded
  3. so that neither throat is loaded
  4. so that both throats are evenly loaded
245. To drag a load lying outside the crane’s work field, one can use:
  1. the bridge travel mechanism
  2. the trolley travel mechanism
  3. the hoisting mechanism
  4. none of the above answers are correct
246. A crane operator, seeing people on the path of a moved load, should:
  1. lift the moved load to a height that prevents hitting bystanders with the load during transport
  2. lift the moved load until the “Up” limit switch is activated and check if those persons are wearing helmets
  3. warn people in the danger zone with an acoustic signal and continue working
  4. suspend the operation until the persons have left the zone
247. In case of finding an incorrect setting of the hoisting mechanism limit switch in the up direction, the operator should:
  1. read the manufacturer’s documentation and perform adjustments
  2. stop work and notify the supervisor of the need for adjustment
  3. continue work; the adjustment will be performed during a maintenance inspection
  4. continue work to maintain the continuity of the plant’s technological process
248. After finishing work with the crane:
  1. lower the hook until it touches the ground
  2. raise the hook until the limit switch is activated
  3. position the crane in its permanent parking spot and raise the hook to a height that does not conflict with transport routes below the limit switch activation point
  4. raise the hook block to a height ensuring proper tension of the hoisting rope strands
249. If, during the transport of a load, the operator notices the load spontaneously and slowly lowering:
  1. this indicates a failure of the hoisting mechanism brake
  2. this indicates a temporary drop in supply voltage, which will pass spontaneously
  3. this is the result of the load capacity limiter activation
  4. in master controller systems, this is a completely normal situation
250. Combining crane movements (simultaneous movements) is:
  1. an attempt to simultaneously start lifting and lowering the hook
  2. the skill of dampening a swaying load
  3. a basic mistake of beginner crane operators
  4. the simultaneous activation of the movement of two mechanisms
251. To lift a load of unknown mass, you should:
  1. check the operation of the load capacity limiter and then lift the load
  2. carry out transport operations at a safe speed, moving the load as close to the ground as possible
  3. estimate the mass of the load
  4. ask for help, e.g., from a forklift operator
252. A brake test of the hoisting mechanism is performed:
  1. only after finishing work
  2. before the first pick-up of a load and when lifting a load larger than the previous one
  3. every time a load is lifted
  4. once before starting a given shift
253. How should the operation of limit switches be correctly checked in two-speed cranes?
  1. 1x at high speed
  2. 2x (1x at slow speed and 1x at high speed)
  3. there is no need to check limit switches
  4. cranes are not equipped with limit switches
254. Can a crane, hoist, or winch operator leave slings on the hook of the hoisting mechanism after finishing work?
  1. yes, but only chain or webbing slings
  2. no
  3. yes, but only if the hook block is raised high enough
  4. this is recommended in workplaces with continuous operation
255. Can the operator use a device with a damaged hoisting mechanism brake?
  1. yes, but only if the lifted load has a negligible mass
  2. yes, but only if the lifted load has a mass not exceeding the nominal capacity of the device
  3. yes, they then use the emergency brake activated by the STOP emergency stop button
  4. no, they cannot
256. Can the operator lift a load when the ropes of the hoisting mechanism (hoist, winch, crane) are not vertical?
  1. yes, provided that the rope inclination angle does not exceed 45°
  2. yes, provided that the rope inclination angle does not exceed 60°
  3. yes, because the maximum permissible angle is 120°
  4. they cannot lift the load
257. The crane operator is obliged to activate anti-wind protections:
  1. only when they receive information from a supervisor about strong winds or an approaching storm
  2. always before starting work in strong wind conditions
  3. they should not activate them, as that is the responsibility of the maintenance technician
  4. always after finishing work and/or leaving the control station
258. Over containers in which people may be present:
  1. it is allowed to move loads, provided a vertical distance of 0.5 meters from the container is maintained
  2. it is not allowed to move loads
  3. it is allowed to move loads without stopping over the containers and maintaining a vertical distance of 1 meter from the container
  4. none of the above answers are correct
259. In the event of limited visibility of the load storage area, you should:
  1. refuse to perform the work
  2. use the help of a slinger (signaler)
  3. first try to set it down without a slinger’s help, and only if that fails, ask for help
  4. estimate the transport path and then set the load down independently
260. The zero interlock will prevent the crane from switching on if:
  1. all controllers are set to the zero position
  2. any controller is set outside the zero position
  3. the anti-shock installation is faulty
  4. the insulation of the electric wires is in poor condition
261. The safety zone of a moving crane depends on:
  1. the height at which the load is transported
  2. the speed at which the load is transported
  3. the height and speed at which the load is transported
  4. the height and speed of the transported load do not affect the safety zone

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